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drat16
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« Reply #15 on: April 30, 2008, 03:22:44 PM »

JD-
I would really ask you to consider the science (that is what it is called) of textual criticism. It is a way to determine if ancient documents are reliable or not. I think your skepticism of documents (even newsreels) from the past is unwarranted. If you want, I can offer text criticism evidence on why the gospels are reliable documents. I think you would be surprised: they are actually more widely attested than all of the sources from which we get our knowledge of Roman history, and are much earlier (closer to the dates that they describe) than any other documents we consider to be reliable from the ancient world (such as works of philosophy, history, drama, etc.). 

Regarding faith= History and such disciplines are very important on this issue of faith. I think once again you are assuming that faith is some sort of irrational belief against all odds. Christianity has never defined it that way. Remember faith must be reasonable in Christian theology.  Christians are claiming that a man actually lived 2,000 years ago, died, and rose again.  It seems we should test that historically to find out if it is true or not. A man raising from the dead, surely there is evidence for it?!?
It is interesting that the theist is the one here asking for faith claims to be tested and not the atheist. If Jesus did not rise, then Christianity is a lie and should not be believed. I would not believe it if that were the case.  However, if an accurate and reasonable argument can be constructed demonstrating that he did resurrect in our history, then we should accept it and place our faith in Christ. 
« Last Edit: May 02, 2008, 08:02:29 AM by drat16 » Logged
JDBLACK
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« Reply #16 on: May 04, 2008, 08:39:42 AM »

Sure, post your text criticism if you like.  I'll read it, but I may not be inspired to discuss it.

Drat, I wish you would stop arguing about "faith".  You are arguing one thing while I'm arguing a different thing and I've accepted that but you don't seem to.  I've stated time and time again that the religious traditions that I was raised in and the vast majority of those I've known and come into contact with in my 41 years are based entirely on blind faith.  You don't have to believe that if you don't want to.  I understand that you don't agree with this position of faith and that's fine with me.  I also agree that not every one has the same definition and idea of what faith is.  But you really should stop arguing that all of Christianity, past and present, holds your view of faith.  It just isn't so and it makes you sound kind of foolish to argue so when I know so well that it is false.
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JDBLACK
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« Reply #17 on: May 08, 2008, 01:05:02 PM »

It occurred to me that the basic premise behind this thread is intellectually bandrupt, so I revived the original post and a better response.

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I.   Quick History of Empiricism
John Locke is obviously a well known name connected to empiricism. However, while Locke’s system used empirical data and he believed the mind to be a blank slate (tabula rasa), on some issues it appears Lock attempted to have it both ways. Locke did state that some information is known to the human mind intuitively (such as God’s existence). Intuitive knowledge would counter his empiricism and blank slate theory. It seems Locke was afraid of where his empiricism might lead him (and rightfully so as we will see in a moment).
Hume was at least honest with his system. While he was a pure empiricist, his empiricism brought him into complete skepticism (as is the natural outgrowth of strong empiricism). Hume’s empiricism can also damage science. For example, Hume denied the law of causation. Causation is a backbone principle of the scientific method and scientific research. However, Hume points out that causation cannot be proven empirically, and so his pure empiricism directed him to reject it. In earlier posts, I asked JD to prove causation empirically and to do it with Hume’s criticism in mind. While this caused considerable confusion, my point was simply to show JD that he had a belief (that he strongly held) that could not be proven empirically.  Why can causation not be proven empirically?  Because only the probability of causation can be proven using empirical methods.  For example, when I hit an apple a visible sign does not appear that states ‘causation occurred.’ Rather, I see the event occur and my mind infers that causation took place (this is Hume's argument).  If one still disagrees with this argument, perhaps it is helpful to note that it what I am saying cannot be disproved empirically either. Probability and inference play an important role in the thought of human beings (many arguments for the existence of God rest on probability). Interestingly, at the end of his life Hume spoke against his own view by stating, “"if he [the skeptic] will acknowledge anything, that all human life must perish, were his principles universally and steadily to prevail" [David Hume, Enquiry Concerning Human  Understanding in 18th - Century Philosophy, ed. Lewis Beck (New York: Free Press, 1966), 121].  So, both Hume and Lock attempted to avoid the full conclusions of their empiricism.
When talking to JD, he does not accept arguments concerning the metaphysical, the religious, etc. because they cannot be ‘proven’ (he means empirically proven). So, let us see how this issue was handled in the past. Strong empiricism came full circle with the movement of logical positivism. The positivists constructed what was called ‘the verification principle.’  According to this principle, anything that is not empirically verifiable (or analytical) should be automatically considered nonsensical. This cut out theology, ethics, metaphysics, etc. However, logical positivism failed because according to the rules of the verification principle, the verification principle itself is nonsensical! This is similar to the point I have been attempting to press with JD. I continue to ask him to demonstrate to me empirically why empirical evidence is all that should be trusted. It cannot be done, and the statement is circular. Here is an example:

Person 1: “I only accept something empirically proven. It is how I determine what I will accept and what I will reject.”
Person 2: “So, demonstrate to me empirically why you only accept something that is empirical.”
Person 1: “What?”
Person 2: “Well, the central thesis of your epistemology cannot be demonstrated empirically. You accept and reject information with a thesis you yourself would have to reject.  It is a fallacious statement.”

Before you think I am splitting hairs here, this has been a long standing argument against strong empiricism. Also, I am not arguing against empirical evidence but merely the belief that only empirical evidence is valid.

II.   What instead?
Space is limited, so I must be brief. So, if pure empiricism is logically fallacious and problematic, what do we replace it with. What should we do? First, an acceptance of the rules of probability. For example, a Christian (I think) can demonstrate the existence of God to high enough degree of probability that one is justified in believing in God- and it is with probability, not pure empiricism,  where most human beliefs are formed. Second, a consideration of critical realism. I think critical realism, a movement that does involve people involved in the hard sciences, offers a better epistemology. I wished to write about it here further but have run out of room. However, if you google critical realism you will surely find results.


First and foremost, for any argument about the value of empiricism to be worth the effort, you must first define what it is you are discussing.  Drat makes this mistake routinely in various posts.  He argues vehemently for the logical, reasonable probability of god's existence, yet from the other side of his facial orifice, he acknowledges that there is no and can probably be no empirical evidence for such a god.  Talk about your logical fallacies...

You must pick what it is you are talking about first, then move forward with any argument on any basis you choose.  If you are interested in arguing about the existence or value of morals, there is ample empirical and philosophical and logical grounds to make such an argument.  If one is interested in discussing the efficacy of some medical treatment on some sort of disease, then quite clearly, empirical evidence is all that matters.  You can philosophize till the cows come home and it won't tell you anything pertinent about the matter.  Logic, of course, will be the primary constraint by which all of that empirical data is evaluated.  Logic is not a tool or even a methodology, it is a framework.

You could imagine an almost limitless number of topics that can all be cut in this same manner.  Some will yield valuable points to be argued from philosophical grounds, some emprical grounds, some on both.  There is no universal law that states that one is "better" than the other, or that one trumps the other, or more complete than the other, as drat seems to think.  Philosophy is not a substitute for empiricism, nor the vice versa.  They essentially deal with different questions.  To ask if something behaves in some certain way is asking an empirical question, not a philosophical one.  To ask if something should be a certain way, or perhaps to explain the intricacies of some human interactions is more of a philosophical question and evades empiricism.  Drat's concept of the two seems twisted in obtuse ways.  He seems to equate empiricsim with some kind of incomplete view of the universe, while philosophy is a more complete picture.  This is a warped view of reality.

To sum up, empirical questions can and most certainly are answered by empirical data all the time.  Philosophy has its place, but it is not to answer empirical questions.  Drat's insistence that empiricism needs some form of objective value-proving is lunacy.

I do reject the supernatural arguments for gods, but not so much on empirical grounds.  Certainly, there is no empirical evidence to support any of the defined supernatural gods.  But I'm willing to enterain philosophical arguments for it adn I've considered them at great length.  I find some of them compelling, but not convincing.  One reason is that most philosophical arguments short circuit virtually all of the narrowly defined "gods" of humankind.  Essentially, it eliminates them.  I can still accept the possibility of a non-defined god, primarily because it evades definition.  The moment one puts a strict definition on god, it begins to look less like any philosophically derrived entity and more like an empirically derrived entity.  So, my grounds for rejecting god are much more logical than anyone's grounds for accepting it.  Every Christian basically subscribes to a very empirical definition of god, and as such it cannot exist because it defies empirical evidence or data.  Stripped of all empiricism, and you get a philosophically derrived god, which is believable, but undefinable.  In essense, it is a paradox and as such beyond the understanding of the human mind.



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drat16
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« Reply #18 on: May 08, 2008, 05:23:07 PM »

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He argues vehemently for the logical, reasonable probability of god's existence, yet from the other side of his facial orifice, he acknowledges that there is no and can probably be no empirical evidence for such a god
Yes I certainly do that, yet there is no contradiction in this set here. Something can be ‘logical’ and ‘reasonable’ and not be ‘empirical.’ I would strenuously argue that God cannot be empirically tested. By using the term empirical here, I am referring to ‘physically testable’ as the sort of thing done in science.  Oxford dictionary defines ‘empirical’ as something "based on, concerned with, or verifiable by observation or experience rather than theory or pure logic." Basically, God cannot be verified today by 'observation' as he is not physical, but that does not mean the premise is not logical. By stating 'empirical' in these post I am referring to something's 'physical observability,' predominately the 'physicalness' of the evidence. That is also what empirical means to you apparently.
Yet, you know all of this already, and I think what you are arguing against is the fact that I posted an argument for the resurrection that was more evidence based (i.e., texts, witnesses, etc.) and not just all rationalistic in tone. You think I have contradicted myself here. However, first let me state that you yourself argued against my line of argumentation in the resurrection post as it was not 'empirical' enough for you, ex., you said we cannot know that if the texts are reliable for sure, etc.  Basically, you were skeptical of it because it is not 'testable' in the strict sense of the word, i.e., it is not considered normal scientific, ‘empirical’ evidence. Second, you yourself have rejected eye witness testimony-in the Socrates case for example-as it was 'not empirical' enough for you.
I think you see my point- there is no evidence for the existence of God today that is physically testable by pure observation, even with the resurrection argument.  You yourself have recognized this by attacking my resurrection argument for not being up to your liking. So, what is the resurrection argument? Well, at one particular moment in history God did become a man and walked this earth. At that moment, evidence was ‘empirical’ as Christ walked, talked, died, and lived again. I posted it because I wanted to show that there was ‘empirical evidence’ for Christianity at one point and that we can use history to point to that evidence.  What we have today is a historical argument that analyzes events that happened in the past, something not empirical in and of itself. We look back to see if there really was a person named Jesus who lived and died and lived again. IF someone raised from the dead, as I said before, then there should be some historical evidence for it and that would point to empirical evidence for Christianity at one point in history (and I hoped this would be interesting to you).
 Unfortunately, we never really got going on the resurrection,  we could not get to the evidence because you were so skeptical of the historical steps required to get there.
To sum it up, I am right to assert that there is no empirical evidence for God today. There are numerous philosophical (rationalistic) arguments that are very persuasive and an argument via history that empirical evidence was once available. Yet, today that evidence is only available via historical research and you, as a strong empiricist, were even skeptical of that- which proves my point that no empirical evidence is available today.
I would just say this, quickly, as I have been strongly advocating that there is no 'strict' empirical evidence for God available  today.  This does not entail there is NO evidence for God, for belief in God is a very reasonable proposition. All evidences should be considered when weighing the truthfulness of a proposition. This brings us to the next point though.....
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If one is interested in discussing the efficacy of some medical treatment on some sort of disease, then quite clearly, empirical evidence is all that matters.  You can philosophize till the cows come home and it won't tell you anything pertinent about the matter.

Yes you are certainly right that no one would need some sort of proof theorem in order to tell if penicillin works in curing a disease. Remember, I have never suggested that empirical is not helpful in total, but I have been strongly arguing this entire time that there is more than just empirical evidence in this world that one should consider. To consider ONLY empirical evidence, as you stated you were doing in our previous discussions, is faulty (and commits a logical fallacy). That is my major concern here. I'm not arguing that one system is 'better' than the other, but I am arguing that when one accepts all evidences, empirical and non-empirical, then that is better. To quickly this: empirical evidence and testing can demonstrate that if you put poison in your grandmother's tea that she will die. However, it cannot ever tell you if such a thing is right or not. For that, we must enter into the metaphysical world of ethics. Neither can it by itself tell you how to define her ‘personhood,’ and for that you need to consider philosophy.
Basically, the issue is not philosophy or other predominately non-physical disciplines in war against science or empirical evidence, rather what I am arguing against is your premise that ONLY empirical evidence is valuable and all other evidences should be treated as extremely suspect or invaluable. As we can see from the example, all have their roles and are helpful- empiricism tells what will happen, ethics tells what is right, and philosophy tells us what constitutes a person.
Now, what I think you are reacting to here though is my assertion of "So, if pure empiricism is logically fallacious and problematic, what do we replace it with?" Yet notice the important word I used here- 'PURE' empiricism. This is not a rejection of empirical evidence, but of your empiricism only view.  I simply wish to replace your view of 'pure' empiricism with a high view of probability.   Yet I am not so sure that this is a bankrupt idea. This probability view would be a major component of critical realism (you can see my views leaking into this) and critical realism is the dominant epistemology in science today, held by theists and non theists alike.
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Philosophy is not a substitute for empiricism, nor the vice versa.  They essentially deal with different questions....Drat's concept of the two seems twisted in obtuse ways.  He seems to equate empiricism with some kind of incomplete view of the universe, while philosophy is a more complete picture.
No, philosophy and empirical evidence are not in conflict and I have never suggested that they are. Nor have I stated that philosophy in and of itself is the answer. I think maybe you misunderstand me here. However, I am arguing strenuously that empiricism alone is an incomplete view of the universe, because it is. Therein lies the conflict. You have stated previously that if something is not empirical, then you reject it (you have said it on numerous occasions, especially back in Jan. And Feb.) so I am reacting against this view.  One piece of evidence is not 'better' than the others, but all are important and I just think you should consider them all and not just empiricism.
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One reason is that most philosophical arguments short circuit virtually all of the narrowly defined "gods" of humankind.  Essentially, it eliminates them.

Yea, I'm pretty sure this is not the case JD. For example, the cosmological argument put forth by Aristotle is perfectly compatible with theism (Christianity and Islam). It does not short circuit the definition of the Christian God, as Christians use it all the time. It is very compatible with both Christianity and Islam (for example, the Kalam cosmological argument was originally created by Muslims and then later employed by Christians). So, there is nothing in the classical 'proofs' that short circuits Christianity, Islam, Judaism, etc. Now you are correct that these proofs cannot in and of themselves demonstrate the Christian God in particular, as they only point to A god. But remember we must take this in steps. First we must convince someone there is a God and then we can build a case for why the Christian God is the correct understanding. So, the classical arguments are VERY helpful and do not short circuit at all, but instead they can be the 'first point' in a Christian argument.   
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The moment one puts a strict definition on god, it begins to look less like any philosophically derived entity and more like an empirically derived entity.  So, my grounds for rejecting god are much more logical than anyone's grounds for accepting it.  Every Christian basically subscribes to a very empirical definition of god, and as such it cannot exist because it defies empirical evidence or data.  Stripped of all empiricism, and you get a philosophically derived god, which is believable, but undefinable.

First, I want to clarify some terms here because maybe there is some confusion. As you know, Christianity would vigorously argue that God is not empirical, that is he exist as spirit- so I am not sure what you mean. At one time in history (for 33 years) Christ took on flesh, but that physical incarnation is not his true nature, i.e.. who he is.  Notice he had to take on flesh, the assumption is that he was not physical before that.
Now, are there great reasons for believing in a philosophically demonstrable God? Yes, you are correct if by that you mean the unmoved mover, uncaused cause, etc.. Yet this sort of God is not is not incompatible with the christian God in the least. So, if a person accepts the fact that a deity exists like the philosophical arguments point to (an eternal, uncaused person, etc.), then it is easy to point them to Christianity.

In conclusion- I would still like you to answer my question. You stated previously that only empirical evidence is reliable, but this statement in and of itself cannot be proven by empirical evidence, therefore following your own system you are advocating a view that you yourself cannot not hold. How is this possible? My point was to show a contradiction in your thought - that when you state that only empirical evidence is reliable, you are making an a philosophical statement and not a scientific one. You have always responded back in the past that 'this is why I hate philosophy' or 'philosophy cannot prove anything so we must have empiricism' but this misses the point. We replace your positivism  with a high view of probability, and an understanding that we are not rejecting empirical evidence here but are instead simply accepting empirical evidence as well as all other evidences. Yet the question remains, how would you solve the contradiction in your system?

Now, JD I am going to have to be away for a week so I will not be able to post for a few days. However, when I get back I will offer you textual evidence for the historical reliability of the gospels as well as an argument as to why science does not entail naturalism (and why naturalism subverts science in the long run). I hope you have a good week.
« Last Edit: May 08, 2008, 07:46:52 PM by drat16 » Logged
JDBLACK
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« Reply #19 on: May 09, 2008, 02:54:26 PM »

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However, first let me state that you yourself argued against my line of argumentation in the resurrection post as it was not 'empirical' enough for you, ex., you said we cannot know that if the texts are reliable for sure, etc.  Basically, you were skeptical of it because it is not 'testable' in the strict sense of the word, i.e., it is not considered normal scientific, ‘empirical’ evidence. Second, you yourself have rejected eye witness testimony-in the Socrates case for example-as it was 'not empirical' enough for you.

Not exactly.  I wouldn’t use the phrase "not empirical enough", but rather not testable or not solid evidence.  An analogy could be made to big foot sightings.  Numerous people claim to have seen big foot and many have plaster casts of its footprints and samples of its hair.  But all of these bits of potential evidence can be explained by other means, so they are not solid enough to support the claim that big foot exists.

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So, what is the resurrection argument? Well, at one particular moment in history God did become a man and walked this earth. At that moment, evidence was ‘empirical’ as Christ walked, talked, died, and lived again. I posted it because I wanted to show that there was ‘empirical evidence’ for Christianity at one point and that we can use history to point to that evidence.  What we have today is a historical argument that analyzes events that happened in the past, something not empirical in and of itself. We look back to see if there really was a person named Jesus who lived and died and lived again. IF someone raised from the dead, as I said before, then there should be some historical evidence for it and that would point to empirical evidence for Christianity at one point in history (and I hoped this would be interesting to you).

Drat, it baffles me that you consider this a satisfying argument.  The fallacies are just so obvious.  You phrased your point in a very creative way, for that I will give you credit.  But this is actually the more appropriate way to phrase it:

We have historical accounts that around 2,000 years ago a man named Jesus performed miracles and claimed to be the son of god.  This man was purported to be crucified by Rome, buried, and rose 3 days later, made himself known to his followers, then vanished from the earth. 

Now, this is the myth of Jesus, it is not actual history.  Your claim is that it is actual history.  But we cannot know it is actual history because we don’t have evidence that is reliable enough to verify these extraordinary events.  If one scales down the assertions of the events, it becomes far less extraordinary and much more believable.

We have historical accounts that a man some 2,000 years ago claimed to be a holy prophet.  He preached a not-uncommon message of love and hope to a world of divisive, tribal superstitious people.  This person so enraged the established powers that he was put to death and yet inspired a group of followers who began to spread his message, often exaggerating his feats in order to inspire others.

Now this claim is far less extraordinary and thus much more believable.  It is still not historically verifiable, but it doesn’t have to be to be accepted.  We know that even today such people exist, so there’s little reason to doubt such an event occurred 2,000 years ago.  This makes this version of the story far more likely to be correct.

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Unfortunately, we never really got going on the resurrection, we could not get to the evidence because you were so skeptical of the historical steps required to get there.


And I have every right to be skeptical of a mostly oral tradition that is over 2,000 years old.

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To sum it up, I am right to assert that there is no empirical evidence for God today. There are numerous philosophical (rationalistic) arguments that are very persuasive and an argument via history that empirical evidence was once available.


Right and wrong.  Right that there is no empirical evidence today.  Right that there are compelling philosophical arguments.  But wrong that empirical evidence was once available.  As I said above, this is merely an assumption.  Because you believe the story, you place value on the historical accounts, which you assume to be true.  But the historical accounts should be evaluated completely on their own, regardless of one’s belief in Jesus.  And even if one accepts the philosophical arguments for god, those arguments do not necessarily support the Jesus myth.

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This does not entail there is NO evidence for God, for belief in God is a very reasonable proposition. All evidences should be considered when weighing the truthfulness of a proposition.


It is this kind of circular logic that confounds me.  You say there is no empirical evidence for god, yet you say it is reasonable to believe in it, but that "all evidences" should be considered.  I counter by saying that there is no empirical evidence for big foot, but because there are good arguments for it both philosophically and conjecturally, it must be reasonable to believe that big foot exists.  This is the very same logic you use.  I stand firmly that there is no empirical evidence for god, all historical evidence is too flimsy to accept as valid and even though the philosophical arguments are compelling, they scarcely support the mythological framework of the revealed religions.  So god could very well exist, but we have no evidence of it; it does virtually nothing and never makes itself known to anyone.

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I have been strongly arguing this entire time that there is more than just empirical evidence in this world that one should consider.

Yet when pressed, all you ever offer is flimsy historical traditions of a largely mythical Jesus.  I’m sorry, drat, but your form of logic confounds me.  Where is all this evidence you speak of?  Of what form does it take? 

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To consider ONLY empirical evidence, as you stated you were doing in our previous discussions, is faulty (and commits a logical fallacy). That is my major concern here. I'm not arguing that one system is 'better' than the other, but I am arguing that when one accepts all evidences, empirical and non-empirical, then that is better.


Drat, you seem to just go round and round on this.  You continuously state that something other than empirical evidence is both available and valuable.  The only thing other than empirical evidence that I now of is philosophical arguments, and I’ve given you my opinion on that already.  So, what else is there?

Empirical:  hard, testable evidence
Philosophical: arguments based on logic & beer
Other:  Huh

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To quickly this: empirical evidence and testing can demonstrate that if you put poison in your grandmother's tea that she will die. However, it cannot ever tell you if such a thing is right or not. For that, we must enter into the metaphysical world of ethics. Neither can it by itself tell you how to define her ‘personhood,’ and for that you need to consider philosophy.

On this I actually agree.  What you are really talking about are value judgments, and empirical data is not useful there.  Perhaps you misunderstood my insistence on empiricism to incorporate all manner of human existence.  You are mistaken.
 
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Basically, the issue is not philosophy or other predominately non-physical disciplines in war against science or empirical evidence, rather what I am arguing against is your premise that ONLY empirical evidence is valuable and all other evidences should be treated as extremely suspect or invaluable. As we can see from the example, all have their roles and are helpful- empiricism tells what will happen, ethics tells what is right, and philosophy tells us what constitutes a person.

Yes, you have most definitely misunderstood my position.  The concept of value judgments has never come up in our discussions, so there was never a need to discuss how it relates to empiricism.  You’ve just extrapolated what you think I believe, and you’re mistaken.  We can put that straw man to rest now, thank you.

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Now, what I think you are reacting to here though is my assertion of "So, if pure empiricism is logically fallacious and problematic, what do we replace it with?" Yet notice the important word I used here- 'PURE' empiricism. This is not a rejection of empirical evidence, but of your empiricism only view.  I simply wish to replace your view of 'pure' empiricism with a high view of probability.   Yet I am not so sure that this is a bankrupt idea. This probability view would be a major component of critical realism (you can see my views leaking into this) and critical realism is the dominant epistemology in science today, held by theists and non theists alike.

I’m not sure I understand most of this babbling.  But to address a more salient point, I only claim that empiricism is the way we deal with solving problems in the real world, of making sound determinations about our universe.  Probability itself is bound to empiricism, if you are talking about statistics, that is.  You cannot separate statistics from empiricism because statistics is merely a framework of evaluating empirical data and nothing more.

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Nor have I stated that philosophy in and of itself is the answer. I think maybe you misunderstand me here. However, I am arguing strenuously that empiricism alone is an incomplete view of the universe, because it is. Therein lies the conflict. You have stated previously that if something is not empirical, then you reject it (you have said it on numerous occasions, especially back in Jan. And Feb.) so I am reacting against this view.  One piece of evidence is not 'better' than the others, but all are important and I just think you should consider them all and not just empiricism.

Right, you have stated that there is empirical evidence of a man named Jesus who died and was reborn, but I reject that as false evidence, or non-evidence, because it cannot be verified or tested.  You have argued that there is a good philosophical argument for god, and I agree that there are compelling philosophical arguments, but that they are simply not convincing to me.  I stated that if someone makes claims about the universe, then they must back up their claims with empirical evidence, and I stand by that, as virtually every scientist and critical thinker does, and so should you.  Would you believe my claims that an invisible pink unicorn lives in my garage?  But if you want to discuss whether dark chocolate is better than milk chocolate, then we are talking value judgments and not empiricism and I’m fine with that. 

And again, you keep saying there are “other” pieces of evidence.  So what are they?

Empirical:  hard, testable evidence
Philosophical: arguments based on logic & beer
Other:  Huh

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Yea, I'm pretty sure this is not the case JD. For example, the cosmological argument put forth by Aristotle is perfectly compatible with theism (Christianity and Islam). It does not short circuit the definition of the Christian God, as Christians use it all the time. It is very compatible with both Christianity and Islam (for example, the Kalam cosmological argument was originally created by Muslims and then later employed by Christians). So, there is nothing in the classical 'proofs' that short circuits Christianity, Islam, Judaism, etc.


I said “most”, not all, philosophical arguments, drat.  I did not mention any specific argument.  You just cherry picked one that you like and then argued that I specifically pointed to that one, which I did not.  That is a logical fumble.

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Now you are correct that these proofs cannot in and of themselves demonstrate the Christian God in particular, as they only point to A god.


Thank you, thank you, thank you!  Finally an admission of reality!

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But remember we must take this in steps. First we must convince someone there is a God and then we can build a case for why the Christian God is the correct understanding. So, the classical arguments are VERY helpful and do not short circuit at all, but instead they can be the 'first point' in a Christian argument. 
 

Sure, I agree with this approach.  But, sadly, there is a divide that is impassable.  You may convince someone that “god” exists through philosophy, but to get from generic “god” to a resurrected Jesus would require…drum roll, please…empirical evidence!  Why?  Because you have now claimed that god has intervened in our universe and if you make that claim, you have to back it up with empirical evidence, and that you do not have.  Philosophy just can't prove that Jesus existed at all, or that he was god incarnate.  In fact, even if you were successful in providing evidence that Jesus existed, performed miracles, died and was reborn, you would still be hard press to show that it was god and not “something else” that was behind this feat.

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Christianity would vigorously argue that God is not empirical, that is he exist as spirit- so I am not sure what you mean.

What I’m saying is that the vast majority of Christians believe in a god that interacts with the universe, and if that were true, it would be empirically testable.  Because all such tests are false, such notions are also false.  For example, since tests of the efficacy of prayer healing are not positive, then either god does not exist or Christians are wrong and god does not heal people who are prayed for.  Either way, I am right.  Either god does not exist or it does exist but does not intervene in our universe.

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So, if a person accepts the fact that a deity exists like the philosophical arguments point to (an eternal, uncaused person, etc.), then it is easy to point them to Christianity.

No, I totally disagree.  This is just a non sequitur.  If you do prove that a “god” exists, then you have to do the work to prove that this god is the Christian god.  There is no evidence that just points to this being true.

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I would still like you to answer my question. You stated previously that only empirical evidence is reliable, but this statement in and of itself cannot be proven by empirical evidence, therefore following your own system you are advocating a view that you yourself cannot not hold. How is this possible?


Basically because your statement is nonsense.  If you rephrase your question, it might make some sense.  It is not appropriate to ask if empiricism is reliable for everything in the universe.  That would mean that I would have to use some form of empiricism to decide if I want to listen to Judas Priest or R.E.M. in my stereo right now.  But I don’t need empiricism for that.  Right now I just “feel” like listening to R.E.M., so I think I’ll put it in.  Ah, that’s better.  Now, if I unscramble your question to sound more like this, it might make sense:

Question:  what is the best method to answer questions of how our universe works?
Answer:  the scientific method.

Question:  what is the best method to determine what makes people happy?
Answer:  philosophy.

How do I know these things?  Simple.  In order to know the answer to something about the physical universe, one needs information.  To get it, one must observe the universe, test it, and observe the reaction.  There is simply no other way to get information, or at least no way that we are aware of.  One cannot learn the size or age of the universe by discussing it; one must take some kind of measurement.  If you want to argue that we cannot know for certain that what we observe is really the universe and not some virtual simulation, then you are in another realm entirely.  Sure, I agree that it is not possible to know this, but short of assuming that nothing is real and we are all just brains in a jar, such notions are of no value.  So far as we “know” the universe is real and we were not just created 10 minutes ago.  From that basic assumption everything else flows.  If I am mistaken about that basic assumption, then I really don’t care because absolutely none of our ideas or thoughts mean what we think they do, including all of your philosophical ideas.

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My point was to show a contradiction in your thought - that when you state that only empirical evidence is reliable, you are making a philosophical statement and not a scientific one. You have always responded back in the past that 'this is why I hate philosophy' or 'philosophy cannot prove anything so we must have empiricism' but this misses the point. We replace your positivism with a high view of probability, and an understanding that we are not rejecting empirical evidence here but are instead simply accepting empirical evidence as well as all other evidences. Yet the question remains, how would you solve the contradiction in your system?

Again, what other evidence?  This is getting annoyingly repetitious by now.  This is your contradiction, that you continue to assert that empirical evidence is not available.  I've acknowledged your philosophical arguments as compelling, yet not convincing.  But you continue to assert that there are "other" forms of evidence.  So, what are they?

Empirical:  hard, testable evidence
Philosophical: arguments based on logic & beer
Other:  Huh

Again, probability is an empirical exercise.  There is no contradiction in my “system”.  You simply view it as a contraction because you have constructed a framework of your own.  My view of the world is no different than virtually every scientist.  If you want to answer a question about how the universe works, you have to use empirical data.  Even theistic scientists, such as Francis Collins and Ken Miller, agree with me on this.  If you want to discuss value judgments, then philosophy is fine.  The two cannot be crossed over to answer a question for the other.  You have not defined any situation that defies this logic.  Until you do, I will rest on it.  But I do have to acknowledge that some situations require both empiricism and philosophy to arrive at an answer.

The reason I make statements like “I hate philosophy” is because it just seems like any philosophical discussion eventually becomes long winded and bloated with pomposity.  And anyway, I rarely encounter questions that require anything more than a cursory foray into philosophy.  I’m completely happy to exist within the empirical world, where what we can know is usually testable and objective.  I’ve read many books on philosophy and afterward I usually wish I’d just watched a good movie instead; their application seems so often to be remote.  Understand that I’m not knocking the value or usefulness of philosophy as a discipline; but I simply get frustrated with the mental gymnastics required to get into a full on debate on it.  Mentally, I’m just not up to it.  But I feel that I understand it well enough to know when I’m getting the B.S. routine.


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